I have question about Impulse with pendulum. Alpha (α)= Ã¸ ( Angular Velocity ) Angular Acceleration α ̊= - (B/ml[SUP]2[/SUP])* α â€“ (g/l) sin (θ)= f(t, θ, α) B â€“ damping co- efficient g- Acceleration due to gravity L â€“ length of rod. Since the angle more than 20 Degree its calculated by Runge- Kutta Method Finally finding the Angular velocity from the above method in term of negative value. Impulse F∆T = ml Ã¸[SUB]2[/SUB] - ml Ã¸[SUB]1 [/SUB] Initial Angular velocity is zero when max angle. So, F∆T = ml Ã¸[SUB]2[/SUB] angular velocity is calculated from the damping co-efficient value. I have result of Impulse for the Damping co-efficient ( B) from 5000 ft-lbf-s â€“ 65000 ft-lbf-s Mass ( m) â€“ 5000 Lb and length of rod is 15 ft Answer Impulse Damping Co-efficient (ft-lbf-s) 1 -3372.45 5000 2 -3931.99 15000 3 -3417.23 25000 4 -2673.93 35000 5 -1882.30 45000 6 -1233.07 55000 7 -687.47 65000 My question is When damping co-efficient is like friction so, when it increase the impulse (input also should increase right, But I donâ€™t know how this value is arrived, this study is done by industry. if anyone know the reason. Let me know I would be glad to you. Thanks in Advance.